If my husband and I have been separated for 10 years but during the marriage we acquired a house yet I’m the only one who has made the payments during the separation, is he entitled to half of ?
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If my husband and I have been separated for 10 years but during the marriage we acquired a house yet I’m the only one who has made the payments during the separation, is he entitled to half of ?
Asked on November 14, 2012 under Family Law, Florida
Answers:
M.T.G., Member, New York Bar / FreeAdvice Contributing Attorney
Answered 11 years ago | Contributor
If the property is determined to be marital property then yes, he is entitled to a determination of his share, which may not be exactly half. You, though, would also be entitled to a set off for the amount paid in the maintenance and upkeep - as well as mortgage payments - because those were also his obligations. Please seek legal help. Good luck.
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