If I have 2 children by the same man but we were not married when either of the children were born, does he have any leagal right to the children?

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If I have 2 children by the same man but we were not married when either of the children were born, does he have any leagal right to the children?

Asked on November 30, 2012 under Family Law, Georgia

Answers:

M.T.G., Member, New York Bar / FreeAdvice Contributing Attorney

Answered 8 years ago | Contributor

Has parentage been established by court order or affidavit?  Then he has the same rights as you do under the law to the children.  If parentage has not legally been established he can do so at any time.  You would be considered their sole legal guardian until then. 


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