Is my husband entitled to any of the proceeds from the sale of my pre-marital homeif itwas sold after we were married?

UPDATED: May 24, 2011

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Is my husband entitled to any of the proceeds from the sale of my pre-marital homeif itwas sold after we were married?

I sold my pre-marital home (that I owned for about 10 years prior to our marriage) about a year after we were married. The proceeds from that sale have been used to improve his pre-marital home, then our marital home, and used to pay the mortgage and taxes. My husband insists that I owe him half of the proceeds that have all been used maintaining his house. Do I owe him anything?

Asked on May 24, 2011 under Family Law, Michigan


M.T.G., Member, New York Bar / FreeAdvice Contributing Attorney

Answered 11 years ago | Contributor

From the way that you have phrased the question it sounds as if you already gave him more than he should have gotten.  The proceeds were separate property that you co-mingled in to marital property.  Listen, I think that you need to sit down with an attorney and figure  out the maze of finaicials and property that you and your husband have here.  My concern for you is that you used your money to support his separate property - the house - and that you be compensated for that "loan" of sorts.  An attorney has to figure out what you can walk away with.  Do not listen to your husband.  He knows not what he talks about.  Good luck. 

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