If I got the house in my divorce papers 4 years ago and now I want to sell, if my ex’s name is on the deed so he has to sign when sold, do I have to give him any of the profits?
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If I got the house in my divorce papers 4 years ago and now I want to sell, if my ex’s name is on the deed so he has to sign when sold, do I have to give him any of the profits?
Asked on January 15, 2013 under Real Estate Law, North Carolina
Answers:
B.H.F., Member, Texas State Bar / FreeAdvice Contributing Attorney
Answered 11 years ago | Contributor
If you were awarded the house outright, then you would not have to give your ex-husband any of the profits when you sell the house. If your decree had a provision that required you to share profits or reimburse him for any of his equity share in the home, then you would need to comply with any special provisions of your final order. If you are not sure what your orders mean, arrange for a consultation with a family law attorney to review your divorce papers so that you will know what your obligations are and are not.
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